What does II Peter really say about private interpretation?

I recently read a status update on a Facebook page called "Last days Christians" which had the following post to which I felt compelled to reply because it represents a common Protestant view of scriptural interpretation and, more importantly, a contorted interpretation of II Peter 1:19-21 which essentially nullifies its actual meaning.

Here is the post:

"'PROMISES, PROMISES!' (2) :

'...no...Scripture is...of one's own interpretation.' 2 Peter 1:20 NAS
Here are two more principles for discerning which promises in Scripture are for you:

(1) Try to understand the context. No Scripture stands in isolation, but should be read in conjunction with every other Scripture on the same topic. If you isolate 'I can do all things through Christ who strengthens me' (Philippians 4:13 NKJV), believing 'all things' includes leaping from a twelfth-storey window, don't blame God's Word for your unexpected demise! You should also have read the context which says, '...I have learned both to be full and to be hungry, both to abound and to suffer need. I can do all [these] things through Christ who strengthens me.' (Philippians 4:12-13 NKJV) This Scripture doesn't mean you can do anything you want, but that God will enable you to get through anything you encounter while doing His will.

(2) Test Scripture by Scripture, not by your own desires. 'No prophecy of Scripture is a matter of one's own interpretation.' Some Bible promises are universal in application, and some are personal. The personal ones apply to the intended hearer; the universal ones apply to all believers. Know which is which. If you think the Scripture, '...Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved, you and your household' (Acts 16:31 NKJV), guarantees your entire family's salvation, you might be disappointed and think that God failed. No, that was a personal promise made and fulfilled to the Philippian jailer. A universal word for you and your family is, '...In fact, God...wants everyone to turn from sin and no one to be lost.' (2 Peter 3:9 CEV) He wants your entire family to be saved!"

Following is my reply to this post and similar arguments.

II Peter 1:19-21 "Moreover, we possess the prophetic message that is altogether reliable. You will do well to be attentive to it, as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts. Know this first of all, that there is no prophecy of scripture that is a matter of personal interpretation, for no prophecy ever came through human will; but rather human beings moved by the holy Spirit spoke under the influence of God."

II Peter 3:15-16 "And consider the patience of our Lord as salvation, as our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given to him, also wrote to you, speaking of these things as he does in all his letters. In them there are some things hard to understand that the ignorant and unstable distort to their own destruction, just as they do the other scriptures."

Peter says that "we" possess the prophetic message which is reliable. Who is the "we" he is talking about? That is the question which must be answered to properly understand this passage about who has this authority of interpretation. Back up to the beginning of the letter and read II Peter 1:1-2 "Symeon Peter, a slave and apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who have received a faith of equal value to ours through the righteousness of our God and savior Jesus Christ: may grace and peace be yours in abundance through knowledge* of God and of Jesus our Lord." Who is this letter addressed to? It is addressed to those who "have received a faith of equal value to ours..." Peter is addressing his letter to people who are already Christians. So that rules out unbelievers from the possible candidates. So who is the "we" that Peter is referring to? Peter is an Apostle. Peter is referring to himself and the other Apostles here as the "we" as differentiated from all the other Christians who are not Apostles. This helps us to understand the passage. He says that "you" - again talking to Christians - "will do well to be attentive to it...that there is no prophecy of scripture that is a matter of personal interpretation". This statement is addressed to CHRISTIANS - not unbelievers. So it is to Christians that he goes on to say "for no prophecy ever came through human will; but rather human beings moved by the holy Spirit spoke under the influence of God." What is to be inferred? That because the scriptures originated from God through men influenced by the Holy Spirit to do so, only those who are influenced by the Holy Spirit to do so may interpret scripture. In other words, Peter is reminding his Christian readers that "we" - the Apostles - retain the sole authority to properly interpret scripture and not all Christians.

Now some may object that "Indeed only people moved by the Holy Spirit may interpret the scriptures, but all Christians have the Holy Spirit. Therefore all Christians may interpret the scripture." To that objection I submit I Corinthians 12:27-31 which says "Now you are Christ's body, and individually parts of it. Some people God has designated in the Church to be, first apostles; second, prophets; third, teachers; then, mighty deeds; then, gifts of healing, assistance, administration, and varieties of tongues. Are all apostles? Are all prophets? Are all teachers? Do all work mighty deeds? Do all have gifts of healing? Do all speak in tongues? Do all interpret? Strive eagerly for the greatest spiritual gifts." It is true that all Christians have the Holy Spirit bestowed to them in baptism, but not all Christians have the same gifts. Only those to whom God has specifically given this gift have the authority to authentically interpret the scriptures.

Later in chapter 3 Peter reiterates this by saying that "the ignorant and unstable distort [them] to their own destruction, just as they do the other scriptures." Christians were the recipients of Paul's letters to whom Peter referred, but they were still being misinterpreted by the "ignorant and unstable."

So we can see from scripture that simply being a Christian is not enough, by itself, to authentically interpret scripture. One specifically has to have the authority specifically given by God - as Peter and the other Apostles were - to accurately interpret scripture. I John 4:6 reiterates this as well by saying "We are from God; he who knows God listens to us; he who is not from God does not listen to us. By this we know the spirit of truth and the spirit of error." We know truth by listening to "us" - the Apostles - and not by our own interpretation.

Scripture citations were taken from
http://www.usccb.org/bible/1corinthians/12
http://www.usccb.org/bible/2peter/1
http://www.usccb.org/bible/2peter/3
http://www.usccb.org/bible/1john/4

I Corinthians chapter 10's teaching on the real presence of Christ in the Eucharist and the mass as a sacrifice

Most Catholic apologists focus on the 6th chapter of John's gospel when discussing scriptural evidence for the Catholic doctrines of the real presence of Christ in the eucharist. However, I'd like to bring attention to what I think is perhaps the most underused text in defence of this teaching. Paul explains this teaching as well as the sacrificial nature of the mass in the 10th chapter of his first letter to the Corinthian church. I hope that Catholics and non-Catholics alike will read and meditate upon this passage so as to truly appreciate the profound teaching contained in this text. So without further ado is my commentary on the text.

I Corinthians 10:1-4 "I do not want you to be unaware, brothers, that our ancestors were all under the cloud and all passed through the sea, and all of them were baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea. All ate the same spiritual food, and all drank the same spiritual drink, for they drank from a spiritual rock that followed them, and the rock was the Christ."

I Corinthians 10:15-17 "I am speaking as to sensible people; judge for yourselves what I am saying. The cup of blessing that we bless, is it not a participation in the blood of Christ? The bread that we break, is it not a participation in the body of Christ? Because the loaf of bread is one, we, though many, are one body, for we all partake of the one loaf."

I skipped verses 5-14 where Paul speaks about idolatry in order to put these two sections of text closer together for comparison. Understand what Paul is saying. Paul says that the Israelites were BAPTIZED into Moses in the CLOUD and the SEA. This is an allusion to Christian baptism and the reception of the Holy Spirit (cloud) in baptism. And just as the Israelites were baptized into Moses, we are baptized into Christ. Continuing on, he says that they all ate the same SPIRITUAL FOOD (the mana) and all drank the same SPIRITUAL DRINK (the water which flowed from the rock which followed them in the wilderness) and that the ROCK WAS CHRIST. It is with this is mind that Paul then writes that the cup of blessing is a participation in the blood of Christ and the bread is a participation in the body of Christ. So, just as the rock was Christ, so also is the wine and the bread Christ. And just as the Israelites all ate and drank this spiritual food, we also eat and drink the spiritual food that is Christ.

I Corinthians 10:18-22 "Look at Israel according to the flesh; are not those who eat the sacrifices participants in the altar? So what am I saying? That meat sacrificed to idols is anything? Or that an idol is anything? No, I mean that what they sacrifice, [they sacrifice] to demons, not to God, and I do not want you to become participants with demons. You cannot drink the cup of the Lord and also the cup of demons. You cannot partake of the table of the Lord and of the table of demons. Or are we provoking the Lord to jealous anger? Are we stronger than he?"

This passage helps explain why Paul spoke about idolatry in verses 5-14 and why he follows after this about not eating food sacrificed to idols. Pay attention to his argument. Those who offer sacrifices EAT the sacrifices. He goes on to say that what the pagans offer up as a sacrifice is sacrificed to demons - not to God. So he is comparing the Eucharist to the sacrifices of pagans, but the Eucharist is offered to God - not demons. We cannot serve two masters, so we should not offer sacrifices both to God and demons; we must choose one or the other. So when Paul refers to the "table of the Lord" he is confirming that this "table" is an altar of sacrifice. So in summary, Paul is confirming that the Eucharist is a sacrifice, and when we eat it we are eating a sacrificial offering to God.

Scripture citations were taken from http://www.usccb.org/bible/1corinthians/10/

Meandering thoughts on grace

Several years ago, I was introduced to an online program called The Virtual Bible Study ( http://www.collegevue.com/livebroadcast.htm ). It is produced by a Church of Christ congregation in Columbia, TN. I have particpipated in many of the shows over the past few years. I hope that my participation in the show has at least  fostered respectful dialogue between people with sometimes very different points of view. Tonight's topic was on grace. I have tried to be a well-informed Catholic through frequent study of Scripture, the Catechism, papal encyclicals, and various other works from respected sources. Tonight's show reminded me that even a well-informed Catholic can be faced with questions and topics about which he knows less than he should. For this I am grateful, as it has been to me a grace of God to prompt me to study more. It is one thing to give a textbook definition and another to understand a subject intimately. I do know that I have been the recipient of God's grace throughout my life, even when I wasn't actively seeking it. It is fortunate that God does not judge us on what we know. We are judged according to our obedience to what we do know. That itself is a grace, and it is a humbling truth to the man who places his trust in his intellect and knowledge.