I
recently read a status update on a Facebook page called "Last days
Christians" which had the following post to which I felt compelled to
reply because it represents a common Protestant view of scriptural
interpretation and, more importantly, a contorted interpretation of II
Peter 1:19-21 which essentially nullifies its actual meaning.
Here is the post:
"'PROMISES, PROMISES!' (2) :
'...no...Scripture is...of one's own interpretation.' 2 Peter 1:20 NAS
Here are two more principles for discerning which promises in Scripture are for you:
(1) Try to understand the context. No Scripture stands in isolation,
but should be read in conjunction with every other Scripture on the same
topic. If you isolate 'I can do all things through Christ who
strengthens me' (Philippians 4:13 NKJV), believing 'all things' includes
leaping from a twelfth-storey window, don't blame God's Word for your
unexpected demise! You should also have read the context which says,
'...I have learned both to be full and to be hungry, both to abound and
to suffer need. I can do all [these] things through Christ who
strengthens me.' (Philippians 4:12-13 NKJV) This Scripture doesn't mean
you can do anything you want, but that God will enable you to get
through anything you encounter while doing His will.
(2) Test
Scripture by Scripture, not by your own desires. 'No prophecy of
Scripture is a matter of one's own interpretation.' Some Bible promises
are universal in application, and some are personal. The personal ones
apply to the intended hearer; the universal ones apply to all believers.
Know which is which. If you think the Scripture, '...Believe on the
Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved, you and your household' (Acts
16:31 NKJV), guarantees your entire family's salvation, you might be
disappointed and think that God failed. No, that was a personal promise
made and fulfilled to the Philippian jailer. A universal word for you
and your family is, '...In fact, God...wants everyone to turn from sin
and no one to be lost.' (2 Peter 3:9 CEV) He wants your entire family to
be saved!"
Following is my reply to this post and similar arguments.
II
Peter 1:19-21 "Moreover, we possess the prophetic message that is
altogether reliable. You will do well to be attentive to it, as to a
lamp shining in a dark place, until day dawns and the morning star rises
in your hearts. Know this first of all, that there is no prophecy of
scripture that is a matter of personal interpretation, for no prophecy
ever came through human will; but rather human beings moved by the holy
Spirit spoke under the influence of God."
II
Peter 3:15-16 "And consider the patience of our Lord as salvation, as
our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given to him, also
wrote to you, speaking of these things as he does in all his letters. In
them there are some things hard to understand that the ignorant and
unstable distort to their own destruction, just as they do the other
scriptures."
Peter
says that "we" possess the prophetic message which is reliable. Who is
the "we" he is talking about? That is the question which must be
answered to properly understand this passage about who has this
authority of interpretation. Back up to the beginning of the letter and
read II Peter 1:1-2 "Symeon Peter, a slave and apostle of Jesus Christ,
to those who have received a faith of equal value to ours through the
righteousness of our God and savior Jesus Christ: may grace and peace be
yours in abundance through knowledge* of God and of Jesus our Lord."
Who is this letter addressed to? It is addressed to those who "have
received a faith of equal value to ours..." Peter is addressing his
letter to people who are already Christians. So that rules out
unbelievers from the possible candidates. So who is the "we" that Peter
is referring to? Peter is an Apostle. Peter is referring to himself and
the other Apostles here as the "we" as differentiated from all the other
Christians who are not Apostles. This helps us to understand the
passage. He says that "you" - again talking to Christians - "will do
well to be attentive to it...that there is no prophecy of scripture that
is a matter of personal interpretation". This statement is addressed to
CHRISTIANS - not unbelievers. So it is to Christians that he goes on to
say "for no prophecy ever came through human will; but rather human
beings moved by the holy Spirit spoke under the influence of God." What
is to be inferred? That because the scriptures originated from God
through men influenced by the Holy Spirit to do so, only those who are
influenced by the Holy Spirit to do so may interpret scripture. In other
words, Peter is reminding his Christian readers that "we" - the
Apostles - retain the sole authority to properly interpret scripture and
not all Christians.
Now some may object that "Indeed only people moved by the Holy Spirit may interpret the scriptures, but all Christians have the Holy Spirit. Therefore all Christians may interpret the scripture." To that objection I submit I Corinthians 12:27-31 which says "Now you are Christ's body, and individually parts of it. Some people God has designated in the Church to be, first apostles; second, prophets; third, teachers; then, mighty deeds; then, gifts of
healing, assistance, administration, and varieties of tongues. Are all apostles? Are all prophets? Are all teachers? Do all work mighty deeds? Do all have gifts of healing? Do all speak in tongues? Do all interpret? Strive eagerly for the greatest spiritual gifts." It is true that all Christians have the Holy Spirit bestowed to them in baptism, but not all Christians have the same gifts. Only those to whom God has specifically given this gift have the authority to authentically interpret the scriptures.
Later
in chapter 3 Peter reiterates this by saying that "the ignorant and
unstable distort [them] to their own destruction, just as they do the
other scriptures." Christians were the recipients of Paul's letters to
whom Peter referred, but they were still being misinterpreted by the
"ignorant and unstable."
So
we can see from scripture that simply being a Christian is not enough,
by itself, to authentically interpret scripture. One specifically has to
have the authority specifically given by God - as Peter and the other
Apostles were - to accurately interpret scripture. I John 4:6 reiterates
this as well by saying "We are from God; he who knows God listens to
us; he who is not from God does not listen to us. By this we know the
spirit of truth and the spirit of error." We know truth by listening to
"us" - the Apostles - and not by our own interpretation.
Scripture citations were taken from
http://www.usccb.org/bible/1corinthians/12
http://www.usccb.org/bible/2peter/1
http://www.usccb.org/bible/2peter/3
http://www.usccb.org/bible/1john/4
Most Catholic apologists focus on the 6th chapter of John's gospel when discussing scriptural evidence for the Catholic doctrines of the real presence of Christ in the eucharist. However, I'd like to bring attention to what I think is perhaps the most underused text in defence of this teaching. Paul explains this teaching as well as the sacrificial nature of the mass in the 10th chapter of his first letter to the Corinthian church. I hope that Catholics and non-Catholics alike will read and meditate upon this passage so as to truly appreciate the profound teaching contained in this text. So without further ado is my commentary on the text.
I
Corinthians 10:1-4 "I do not want you to be unaware, brothers, that our
ancestors were all under the cloud and all passed through the sea, and
all of them were baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea. All
ate the same spiritual food, and all drank the same spiritual drink, for
they drank from a spiritual rock that followed them, and the rock was
the Christ."
I
Corinthians 10:15-17 "I am speaking as to sensible people; judge for
yourselves what I am saying. The cup of blessing that we bless, is it
not a participation in the blood of Christ? The bread that we break, is
it not a participation in the body of Christ? Because the loaf of bread
is one, we, though many, are one body, for we all partake of the one
loaf."
I
skipped verses 5-14 where Paul speaks about idolatry in order to put
these two sections of text closer together for comparison. Understand
what Paul is saying. Paul says that the Israelites were BAPTIZED into
Moses in the CLOUD and the SEA. This is an allusion to Christian baptism
and the reception of the Holy Spirit (cloud) in baptism. And just as
the Israelites were baptized into Moses, we are baptized into Christ.
Continuing on, he says that they all ate the same SPIRITUAL FOOD (the
mana) and all drank the same SPIRITUAL DRINK (the water which flowed
from the rock which followed them in the wilderness) and that the ROCK
WAS CHRIST. It is with this is mind that Paul then writes that the cup
of blessing is a participation in the blood of Christ and the bread is a
participation in the body of Christ. So, just as the rock was Christ,
so also is the wine and the bread Christ. And just as the Israelites all
ate and drank this spiritual food, we also eat and drink the spiritual
food that is Christ.
I
Corinthians 10:18-22 "Look at Israel according to the flesh; are not
those who eat the sacrifices participants in the altar? So what am I
saying? That meat sacrificed to idols is anything? Or that an idol is
anything? No, I mean that what they sacrifice, [they sacrifice] to
demons, not to God, and I do not want you to become participants with
demons. You cannot drink the cup of the Lord and also the cup of demons.
You cannot partake of the table of the Lord and of the table of demons.
Or are we provoking the Lord to jealous anger? Are we stronger than
he?"
This
passage helps explain why Paul spoke about idolatry in verses 5-14 and
why he follows after this about not eating food sacrificed to idols. Pay
attention to his argument. Those who offer sacrifices EAT the
sacrifices. He goes on to say that what the pagans offer up as a
sacrifice is sacrificed to demons - not to God. So he is comparing the
Eucharist to the sacrifices of pagans, but the Eucharist is offered to
God - not demons. We cannot serve two masters, so we should not offer
sacrifices both to God and demons; we must choose one or the other. So
when Paul refers to the "table of the Lord" he is confirming that this
"table" is an altar of sacrifice. So in summary, Paul is confirming that
the Eucharist is a sacrifice, and when we eat it we are eating a
sacrificial offering to God.
Scripture citations were taken from http://www.usccb.org/bible/1corinthians/10/
